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Dec 29, 2015 at 20:57 vote accept MikeTeX
Dec 29, 2015 at 20:57
Mar 1, 2015 at 7:52 vote accept MikeTeX
Mar 1, 2015 at 7:52
Mar 1, 2015 at 7:51 review Suggested edits
Mar 1, 2015 at 8:11
Mar 1, 2015 at 7:47 comment added MikeTeX @ user74230 Unfortunately, the result appears to be incorrect (see mathoverflow.net/questions/194818/… ). So, there must be a failure in your proof, but I'm not sufficiently skilled to point it out.
Mar 1, 2015 at 7:43 vote accept MikeTeX
Mar 1, 2015 at 7:43
Feb 4, 2015 at 12:05 comment added MikeTeX Ooops. Definitely not a homework problem, but probably easy for you (this is a way to thank you again). I intend to work the non galois case later, so I appreciate particularly the fact that your proof does not rely upon the galois framework.
Feb 4, 2015 at 11:32 comment added user74230 @MikeTeX: No. In the noetherian case beyond dimension 1 the notion of henselian local ring has nothing to do with the notion of valuation ring.
Feb 4, 2015 at 8:29 comment added MikeTeX Thank you so many for the answer. I have a question: At the end of the fifth paragraph, you say "we may now assume A and B are henselian local". In this case, isn't the result immediate ? for if $v$ and $w$ are the valuations corresponding to $A$ and $B$ resp., then $w$ extends $v$, so $[L : K] \geq e(w/v)f(w/v)$.
Feb 4, 2015 at 0:49 history answered user74230 CC BY-SA 3.0