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Feb 2, 2015 at 3:53 history edited Alexey Ustinov CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 2, 2015 at 2:00 history edited Alexey Ustinov CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 2, 2015 at 1:57 comment added Alexey Ustinov Yes, and it is much more shoter than Bizley's arguments!
Feb 1, 2015 at 14:07 comment added Ira Gessel (2) can be derived from (1) by subtracting 1, dividing by $r$ and taking the limit as $r\to 0$.
Feb 1, 2015 at 13:30 history answered Alexey Ustinov CC BY-SA 3.0