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Mar 28, 2010 at 18:02 comment added John Jiang Thanks Robin. I will write a short summary of the proof combining all the ingredients given so far.
Mar 28, 2010 at 7:58 comment added Robin Chapman The integral $\int_0^\infty e^{-t}\log t\,dt$ equals $\Gamma'(1)$. This can be evauated as $-\gamma$ using the infinite product for the gamma function.
Mar 27, 2010 at 20:51 comment added John Jiang Indeed, it makes it a lot easier. Using integration by part, one can show that $\int_1^{\infty} \exp(-y)/y dy - \int_0^1 \frac{1-\exp(-y)}{y}dy = \int_0^{\infty} \exp(-y) \log y dy which is listed as equal to $-\gamma$ in the following wiki page: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… I am yet to figure out why that formula in the wiki page is true.
Mar 27, 2010 at 19:55 comment added Qiaochu Yuan You can prove the identity up to a constant factor by differentiating with respect to x, so it only remains to prove it for x = 1. This should be a little easier.
Mar 27, 2010 at 19:46 comment added John Jiang Thanks for the nice reference on wiki! I was looking at the wrong place.
Mar 27, 2010 at 19:27 history answered Ryan O'Donnell CC BY-SA 2.5