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Jan 29, 2015 at 16:12 answer added Joonas Ilmavirta timeline score: 3
Jan 29, 2015 at 16:11 vote accept Atnap
Jan 29, 2015 at 15:32 answer added Carlo Beenakker timeline score: 10
Jan 29, 2015 at 15:17 comment added Atnap I'm sorry but I don't understand the second part of your comment ("The pullback of the Haar measure over $p_m$ is the original Haar measure"). I tried to find the answer for $m=2$ with Mathematica and I found the integral equals 2.
Jan 29, 2015 at 14:25 comment added Joonas Ilmavirta If the map $U\mapsto U^m$ is surjective $U(n)\to U(n)$, then your integral doesn't change if you change $m$ to 1. In this case the pullback of the Haar measure over $p_m$ is the original Haar measure.
Jan 29, 2015 at 14:14 review First posts
Jan 29, 2015 at 14:26
Jan 29, 2015 at 14:11 history asked Atnap CC BY-SA 3.0