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Jan 29, 2015 at 15:09 history edited Chen Jiang CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 29, 2015 at 15:07 vote accept Li Yutong
Jan 29, 2015 at 15:07 comment added Li Yutong Yes, this makes sense for me, thank you again!!
Jan 29, 2015 at 14:44 comment added Chen Jiang @LiYutong, I edited. Please check additional explanation.
Jan 29, 2015 at 14:43 history edited Chen Jiang CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 29, 2015 at 13:59 comment added Li Yutong Dear Chen Jiang, thank you for your answer! Since I assume $X$ is normal, $X$ is already smooth in codimensional 1. Do you want to argue: when $P$ smooth in codimensional 2, then the canonical divisor $K_P$ is Cartier (which I don't think is true by considering some toric example)?
Jan 29, 2015 at 2:26 history answered Chen Jiang CC BY-SA 3.0