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Feb 1, 2015 at 15:05 vote accept Exterior
Jan 28, 2015 at 18:08 comment added Arturo Magidin (My comment was not in the linked question, but it is in this one ).
Jan 28, 2015 at 18:04 comment added Arturo Magidin (continued) One would expect a truly "categorical proof" to be something you could do in the context of any variety of groups; but since the conclusion does not hold in most of them, I don't expect you would be able to find such a proof in the first place.
Jan 28, 2015 at 18:02 comment added Arturo Magidin As I believe I said in math.SE, I don't think you can have a true "categorical proof" (though you can probably have proofs cast in the language of categories, or proofs that have a categorical flavor), because the fact is not true "categorically". If you look at the category of all groups in a variety of groups (which is a reflective subcategory of Groups and hence generally speaking well-behaved), the only varieties in which "subgroup of free is free" holds are the variety of all groups, all abelian groups, and all abelian groups of exponent $p$ (a prime). (cont)
Jan 28, 2015 at 9:31 answer added Qiaochu Yuan timeline score: 12
Jan 28, 2015 at 3:57 answer added Benjamin Steinberg timeline score: 4
Jan 28, 2015 at 1:27 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Prospects for a categorical proof seem poor in that subgroups of free groups are not canonically free. I think freeness is in some sense a red herring and one should look for some other group-theoretic property equivalent to freeness but which makes no reference to a choice of free generators. Maybe cohomological dimension $1$?
Jan 28, 2015 at 0:46 comment added Benjamin Steinberg arxiv.org/abs/1006.3833 is a version of my somewhat categorical proof with the language stripped out. I had it written with a more categorical language earlier on but removed usage of functors and explicit reference to a group being determined by its category of actions.
Jan 27, 2015 at 23:50 answer added Todd Trimble timeline score: 12
Jan 27, 2015 at 23:04 comment added Fernando Muro What's the meaning of 'categorical proof'?
Jan 27, 2015 at 22:55 answer added Ben Webster timeline score: 9
Jan 27, 2015 at 22:09 comment added Benjamin Steinberg The idea is similar to the one we give in arxiv.org/abs/0812.0027 but tensor products of G-sets replace wreath products.
Jan 27, 2015 at 22:07 comment added Benjamin Steinberg I have a sort of categorical proof that I never published. It uses that a group G is determined up to Isomorphism by its category of G-sets and it uses left Kan extension or tensor products. Also it verifies the universal mapping property. But at a certain moment you do need a Schreier transversal which uses choice. I can probably dig up the draft if someone wants it. I'd say that it makes categorical the part which can be but at some point a spanning tree or transversal is needed.
Jan 27, 2015 at 22:01 comment added Todd Trimble We also had a long accompanying discussion of this nLab entry at the nForum: nforum.mathforge.org/discussion/4364/nielsenschreier-theorem
Jan 27, 2015 at 21:59 comment added Todd Trimble See here: ncatlab.org/nlab/show/Nielsen-Schreier+theorem, where a topological proof and a groupoidal proof are given. It might help to read them in tandem. My impression is that you need some choice to do the proof, but I don't take that as ruling out a categorical proof.
Jan 27, 2015 at 21:45 comment added Pablo Another example of such a category is that of Lie Algebras.
Jan 27, 2015 at 21:43 comment added Yemon Choi There was some discussion of this in some posts at the n-category cafe, IIRC, but I don't have the links to hand
Jan 27, 2015 at 21:35 history asked Exterior CC BY-SA 3.0