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Jan 25, 2015 at 12:56 vote accept Dominic van der Zypen
Jan 24, 2015 at 17:40 comment added MikeTeX @მამუკა ჯიბლაძე Yes, it is the same topology. The author just want to say that $[a, b]$ is a finite interval in the sense that $a$ and $b$ are not infinite, probably because it is the way Frink presented "closed intervals". Of course, this is unnecessary since "finite" intervals are obviously the intersection of two infinite intervals.
Jan 24, 2015 at 6:37 comment added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე In that paper of Northam the topology is defined slightly differently: closed sets are generated by those ${\downarrow}x$ and ${\uparrow}y$ which are infinite, together with those ${\downarrow}x\cap{\uparrow}y$ which are finite. Is this the same topology??
Jan 23, 2015 at 16:49 history edited Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 23, 2015 at 16:34 history edited Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 23, 2015 at 16:26 history answered Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 3.0