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Nov 7, 2018 at 2:14 history edited Anton Petrunin CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 26, 2010 at 23:18 vote accept Sergei Ivanov
Mar 26, 2010 at 23:18 comment added Sergei Ivanov Yup, got it. The function is an antiderivative of a nonnegative $C^\infty$ function whose set of zeroes is a Cantor set of positive measure.
Mar 26, 2010 at 22:36 comment added Sergei Ivanov Probably you are right, this possibility did not occur to me. My first impression is that it will stretch the complement intervals too much for that. Should that bigger Cantor set be specially crafted somehow?
Mar 26, 2010 at 22:12 history answered Anton Petrunin CC BY-SA 2.5