Timeline for Is every smooth function Lebesgue-Lebesgue measurable?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 7, 2018 at 2:14 | history | edited | Anton Petrunin | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Mar 26, 2010 at 23:18 | vote | accept | Sergei Ivanov | ||
Mar 26, 2010 at 23:18 | comment | added | Sergei Ivanov | Yup, got it. The function is an antiderivative of a nonnegative $C^\infty$ function whose set of zeroes is a Cantor set of positive measure. | |
Mar 26, 2010 at 22:36 | comment | added | Sergei Ivanov | Probably you are right, this possibility did not occur to me. My first impression is that it will stretch the complement intervals too much for that. Should that bigger Cantor set be specially crafted somehow? | |
Mar 26, 2010 at 22:12 | history | answered | Anton Petrunin | CC BY-SA 2.5 |