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Feb 15, 2015 at 18:16 comment added David Lampert Yes with algebraic integers: Take g(x),N as above, then let f(x)=x^(1+deg g) + (2^M)*N *g(x) + 2, where M>>0 is a large integer. Eisenstein's criterion gives irreducibility of f(x) and Rouche's theorem (applied to f(x)/(2^M *N)) gives that f(x) has (algebraic integer) zeros near zeros of g(x).
Jan 22, 2015 at 16:49 vote accept Balazs Strenner
Jan 21, 2015 at 20:44 comment added Balazs Strenner That's nice. To make the question harder, say I am interested in algebraic integers instead of algebraic numbers. Any ideas for that?
Jan 21, 2015 at 16:16 history answered Ilya Bogdanov CC BY-SA 3.0