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May 2, 2010 at 18:52 vote accept Randomblue
Mar 27, 2010 at 16:06 comment added Reid Barton But in the other question, there was no requirement that $f$ and $g$ be irreducible, so I think the questions are the same.
Mar 27, 2010 at 15:47 comment added Martin Brandenburg It's not the same question. The case $k=2$ is rather easy.
Mar 26, 2010 at 17:06 comment added Franz Lemmermeyer This seems to be essentially the same as mathoverflow.net/questions/14689/…
Mar 26, 2010 at 16:25 history edited Reid Barton CC BY-SA 2.5
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Mar 26, 2010 at 15:47 answer added Martin Bright timeline score: 21
Mar 26, 2010 at 15:45 comment added Kevin Buzzard No (assuming by the "Galois group of P" you mean the Galois group of its splitting field, and assuming by "correlation" you mean "can I work out the Galois group of P given only the G_i"), because you need to know how the splitting fields of the Q_i interact. Consider for example the cases P=(x^2-2)(x^2-8) and P=(x^2-2)(x^2-3).
Mar 26, 2010 at 15:44 answer added Robin Chapman timeline score: 20
Mar 26, 2010 at 15:35 history asked Randomblue CC BY-SA 2.5