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Jan 21, 2015 at 16:10 vote accept Jeremy Rickard
Jan 21, 2015 at 9:15 history edited Jeremy Rickard CC BY-SA 3.0
Corrected $k^\omega$ to $k^{\oplus \omega}$
Jan 21, 2015 at 1:26 comment added Eric Wofsey This argument also works for any well-orderable $k$; you just have to find $|k|$ copies of the regular representation in each $r(I)$. In particular, assuming choice, this shows $k(X)$ has a symmetric basis for any $k$ of characteristic zero.
Jan 20, 2015 at 21:49 comment added Emil Jeřábek The argument I gave in essence exploits the field structure of $W=k(x_1,\dots,x_n)$ to provide an explicit isomorphism $W\simeq W_\lambda\otimes kS_n$, where $\lambda=(n)$ corresponds to the trivial representation. I don’t know whether such a thing stands a chance of working for $r(I)$, but if so, it would considerably alleviate the need for $k$ to be countable.
Jan 20, 2015 at 17:54 comment added Emil Jeřábek Very nice! ----
Jan 20, 2015 at 17:49 history edited Emil Jeřábek CC BY-SA 3.0
added 49 characters in body
Jan 20, 2015 at 16:01 history edited François G. Dorais CC BY-SA 3.0
fixed small typos
Jan 20, 2015 at 13:47 comment added David E Speyer Okay, I made the easy switch and imposed $k$ counteable. Now to think about the better switch, where we deal with any characteristic zero field.
Jan 20, 2015 at 13:46 history edited David E Speyer CC BY-SA 3.0
added 15 characters in body
Jan 20, 2015 at 13:45 comment added David E Speyer Oh, uggh, you're right. I thought through a lot of this with $\mathbb{Q}$ and then switched at the last moment. Editing now...
Jan 20, 2015 at 13:43 comment added Emil Jeřábek $k(x)$ has an independent subset $\{(x-a)^{-1}:a\in k\}$ of size $|k|$, hence $k(x_1,\dots,x_n)$ only has a countable basis if $k$ itself is countable. Or am I missing something?
Jan 20, 2015 at 13:37 history answered David E Speyer CC BY-SA 3.0