Timeline for How to show that x-y is Lebesgue-Lebesgue measurable
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
7 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Jan 21, 2013 at 15:20 | comment | added | Carlo Mantegazza | T is Lipschitz, hence zero-sets go to zero-sets | |
Mar 27, 2010 at 17:43 | comment | added | Nicolò | Yes, but there are several things to show.. | |
Mar 27, 2010 at 1:11 | comment | added | François G. Dorais | @Nicolò: Cover $N$ with balls of very small total measure and think about what $T$ does to each ball... | |
Mar 26, 2010 at 22:59 | comment | added | Nicolò | I've thought it was immediate to show that linear bijection are Leb-Leb measurable, but thinking a little more on it there is a thing to show: if $T$ is a linear bijection and $N$ is a Borelian of null measure, is $T(N)$ of null measure? | |
Mar 26, 2010 at 22:39 | comment | added | Regenbogen | Why was this answer accepted? Of course this answer was very helpful; but it doesn't actually answer the question. | |
Mar 26, 2010 at 22:37 | vote | accept | Nicolò | ||
Mar 26, 2010 at 22:56 | |||||
Mar 26, 2010 at 13:31 | history | answered | Robin Chapman | CC BY-SA 2.5 |