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Jan 16, 2015 at 21:25 comment added Igor Rivin @scouser think inverse fourier transform. FT is positive -> YOUR FUNCTION is p.d.
Jan 16, 2015 at 21:13 comment added scouser maybe I expressed myself incorrect in the comment. My point is that if I treat $f$ as the density of my measure, then the theorem states that $\hat{f}(p)$ is positive definite, but this does not imply that $\hat{f}(p)\geq 0$ pointwise. This is what I meant by non-negative in the question.
Jan 16, 2015 at 21:04 comment added Igor Rivin @scouser what does that have to do with anything? Your function is positive by assumption, and pos. def. since the fourier transform is positive.
Jan 16, 2015 at 20:59 comment added scouser Yeah, but the fact that a function is positive definite does not imply it is pointwise positive, doesn't it?
Jan 16, 2015 at 20:43 history answered Igor Rivin CC BY-SA 3.0