Timeline for Binomial coefficient identity
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Jan 11, 2015 at 3:27 | comment | added | GH from MO | @GjergjiZaimi: You are right. I checked this in my head, but stopped half-way :-) | |
Jan 11, 2015 at 3:17 | comment | added | Gjergji Zaimi | @GHfromMO, It is actually correct as it is. If you notice the $\binom{n+m}{n}$, became $\binom{n+m}{n+1}$, and that's where the ${n+1}$ in the numerator came from. | |
Jan 11, 2015 at 3:11 | comment | added | GH from MO | I think, if we want to be pedantic, in your 4th display the numerator $(n+1)(-1)^r$ should be $(r+1)(-1)^r$. And then we need to detach a zero sum similarly as before, if I am not mistaken. | |
Jan 11, 2015 at 2:20 | history | edited | Gjergji Zaimi | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 78 characters in body
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Jan 11, 2015 at 2:16 | comment | added | Gjergji Zaimi | @KConrad, yes, the whole point of the proof is that we are reducing to the case $m=0$. I guess I can edit this to clarify. | |
Jan 11, 2015 at 2:05 | comment | added | KConrad | Then you should say before you get to the step that you're taking $m \geq 1$ when doing the simplification, since the result itself is true at $m=0$. | |
Jan 11, 2015 at 1:58 | comment | added | Gjergji Zaimi | True, but I'm also only using it whenever $m\geq 1$. :) | |
Jan 11, 2015 at 1:55 | comment | added | KConrad | $\sum_{k=0}^m \binom{m}{k}(-1)^k$ is not $0$ if $m = 0$. | |
Jan 11, 2015 at 1:51 | history | answered | Gjergji Zaimi | CC BY-SA 3.0 |