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Jan 9, 2015 at 16:10 history edited ScienceSnake CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 9, 2015 at 15:16 history edited ScienceSnake CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 9, 2015 at 15:07 history edited ScienceSnake CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 9, 2015 at 15:03 comment added ScienceSnake I've checked the example above: the eigenvalues of A, B and AB are definitely right. I do however agree with you Shamisen, something doesn't make sense. In fact, there is no reason in general that $\sum_i \lambda^\downarrow(A)_i \lambda^\uparrow(B)_i = \sum_i \lambda^\downarrow(A)_i \lambda^\downarrow(B)_i$ so it's not even necessarily true that $\lambda^\downarrow(A) \cdot \lambda^\uparrow(B)\prec \lambda^\downarrow(A) \cdot \lambda^\downarrow(B)$. Ive looked through the textbook that first states this (Bhatia) and the only explanation I can find is that he means $\prec_w$ instead of $\prec$.
Jan 9, 2015 at 2:41 comment added Tadashi @Ben I don't think this example is correct, since $\lambda^\downarrow(A) \cdot \lambda^\uparrow(B) = (2,3)$,$\lambda(AB) = (4, 1.5)$ and hence $2+3 \ne 4 + 1.5$.
Jan 9, 2015 at 2:38 comment added Tadashi @StevenGubkin $\prec$ means the majorization preorder and $x \cdot y := (x_1 y_1, \ldots, x_n y_n)$.
Jan 8, 2015 at 20:15 comment added Steven Gubkin I guess I am maybe more confused than I thought. If $\lambda(A)$ is only a set (not an ordered set), what does $\prec$ mean here?
Jan 8, 2015 at 20:12 comment added Steven Gubkin I am probably only proving how stupid I am at this point, but how does taking $A$ and $B$ to be diagonal matrices above not invalidate the theorem?
Jan 8, 2015 at 20:09 comment added Steven Gubkin Thanks! This clarifies things immensely. Would you mind adding this example to the question?
Jan 8, 2015 at 20:02 comment added ScienceSnake Let's take an explicit example. Let $\lambda(A)=(2,1)$, $\lambda(B)=(3,1)$, and $\lambda(AB)=(4,1.5)$. It's easy to check that these numbers satisfy the inequality in the question. Clearly, taking A and B to be diagonal matrices, however, does not work. In this case, a solution is to take $$ A = \left( \begin{array}{cc} \frac{5}{4} & \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} \\ \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} & \frac{7}{4} \\ \end{array} \right)$$ and $$B = \left( \begin{array}{cc} 3 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \\ \end{array} \right)$$.
Jan 8, 2015 at 19:47 review Close votes
Jan 8, 2015 at 20:44
Jan 8, 2015 at 19:44 comment added Steven Gubkin If I understand everything correctly, just define $A$ and $B$ to be diagonal matrices, where the eigenvalues are placed in descending order. Can you confirm this is what you are asking about? If so it is really off topic for this site.
Jan 8, 2015 at 19:34 comment added ScienceSnake Reworded the question to, hopefully, be clearer.
Jan 8, 2015 at 19:32 history edited ScienceSnake CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 8, 2015 at 19:21 comment added Steven Gubkin How about $A$ is the identity matrix, and $B$ is the diagonal matrix with the given eigenvalues? Can you make your question a bit more precise and generally understandable?
Jan 8, 2015 at 18:35 history edited ScienceSnake CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 8, 2015 at 16:45 review First posts
Jan 8, 2015 at 17:09
Jan 8, 2015 at 16:43 history asked ScienceSnake CC BY-SA 3.0