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Jan 10, 2015 at 22:59 comment added Thomas Kojar The S-P theorem allowed $\int_{a}^{b}\int_{0}^\infty \sin[u r]f(u)\,drdu={\cal P}\int_{a}^{b}\frac{1}{u}f(u)du=\int_{a}^{b}\frac{1}{u}f(u)du$ where $f(u)=(1-e^{-u^{2}/2t})(tu)^{-1}$ and P was ignored because as Beenakker commented, $f(u)u^{-1}$ is not singular at u=0 (as the exponent grows faster).
Jan 10, 2015 at 20:09 vote accept Thomas Kojar
Jan 9, 2015 at 20:49 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 9, 2015 at 20:36 comment added Carlo Beenakker I added a more detailed derivation of this step.
Jan 9, 2015 at 20:36 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 9, 2015 at 19:31 comment added Thomas Kojar why is $\int_{r_{0}}^{\infty} \int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1-e^{-u^{2}}t/2}{u}sin(u(r-r_{0}))drdu$ a finite value? The $\int_{r_{0}}^{\infty} sin(u(r-r_{0}))dr$ is not converging.
Jan 9, 2015 at 19:13 vote accept Thomas Kojar
Jan 9, 2015 at 19:32
Jan 7, 2015 at 14:35 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 7, 2015 at 14:25 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 3.0
added 131 characters in body
Jan 7, 2015 at 6:58 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 7, 2015 at 6:46 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 7, 2015 at 6:40 history answered Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 3.0