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Mar 25, 2010 at 3:30 comment added Pete L. Clark I just noticed something amusing in the above rather trivial claims. If you take T_1 to mean (as I did) that points are closed, then in the above world of non-automatic openness of $\emptyset$ and $X$, Hausdorff does not imply T_1: consider a one point space with non-open empty set!
Mar 25, 2010 at 1:38 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Anything you can say in topology applies only to the union of all of the open sets in X. If there are points in X not in this union, they might as well not be there; in other words, I see no conceivable reason to exclude the entire set from being open.
Mar 25, 2010 at 1:09 history answered Pete L. Clark CC BY-SA 2.5