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Sep 19, 2016 at 20:40 comment added Adel BETINA I agree that the constant term of the $q$-expansion of $E^p_1(\chi_1,\chi_2)$ at the cusp $\infty$ is zero, but how we proof that the evaluation of $E^p_1(\chi_1,\chi_2)$ is trivial at the $\Gamma_0(p)$ orbit of $\infty$ (in order to say that $E^p_1(\chi_1,\chi_2)$ is cupsidal overconvergent)?
Jan 23, 2015 at 21:40 vote accept jkramerm
Jan 23, 2015 at 21:40
Jan 6, 2015 at 17:42 history answered sibilant CC BY-SA 3.0