Timeline for Gaussian distributions as fixed points in Some distribution space
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
18 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Jun 27, 2023 at 17:23 | comment | added | Abhimanyu Pallavi Sudhir | I think this in some sense the most general way of thinking of the Pythagorean theorem. | |
Dec 31, 2014 at 17:36 | answer | added | user45183 | timeline score: 2 | |
Dec 31, 2014 at 17:14 | history | edited | Exterior | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 31, 2014 at 12:35 | answer | added | kjetil b halvorsen | timeline score: 3 | |
Dec 31, 2014 at 11:10 | vote | accept | Exterior | ||
Dec 30, 2014 at 22:29 | answer | added | Abdelmalek Abdesselam | timeline score: 13 | |
Dec 30, 2014 at 21:51 | answer | added | j.c. | timeline score: 5 | |
Dec 30, 2014 at 21:05 | comment | added | kaleidoscop | there you go (I had to upvote, though... :) | |
Dec 30, 2014 at 21:03 | history | edited | Exterior | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 30, 2014 at 20:58 | comment | added | Exterior | @kaleidoscop I don't know what the precise meaning is, that's what I'm trying find out. Also, could you please remove your downvote? :) | |
Dec 30, 2014 at 20:50 | comment | added | kaleidoscop | that's right I read too quickly, sorry. So an orbit is the class of all $\mu\star\nu$ for fixed $\mu$ and $\nu$ a probability measure. So what does it mean for the Gaussian distribution "to be the fixed point of each orbit"? | |
Dec 30, 2014 at 20:37 | comment | added | Exterior | @kaleidoscop, assuming one of the downvotes was yours, consider actually reading questions. | |
Dec 30, 2014 at 18:07 | comment | added | Yemon Choi | @kaleidoscop Really? So what action is being considered when they speak of fixed points of orbits? Are you referring to the fact that the convolution of independent Gaussians is again a Gaussian? | |
Dec 30, 2014 at 17:55 | review | Close votes | |||
Jan 3, 2015 at 5:58 | |||||
Dec 30, 2014 at 17:42 | comment | added | Exterior | I asked here because my professor (who is a renowned probablist) said he only saw this in a seminar, and he didn't know any books which describe this result. In light of this, I don't see why my question merits a downvote. Also, most measure theory books do not even mention probability. | |
Dec 30, 2014 at 17:36 | comment | added | kaleidoscop | This is not a research level question, but I know this result is proved in most measure theory books around the chapter of convolution | |
Dec 30, 2014 at 17:27 | history | edited | Exterior | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Dec 30, 2014 at 15:15 | history | asked | Exterior | CC BY-SA 3.0 |