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Dec 29, 2014 at 23:59 history edited Noah Schweber CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 29, 2014 at 23:56 comment added Joel David Hamkins Probably, and I expect so, but I don't see it as immediate. After all, it was some work even to get uncountable models that were incomparable by embeddability at all.
Dec 29, 2014 at 23:53 comment added Noah Schweber I was visualizing a pair of multiverses all of whose elements were uncountable universes (with illfounded $\omega$); I'm pretty sure that we can get a failure of joint embeddability with such a pair. Is this not the case?
Dec 29, 2014 at 23:02 comment added Joel David Hamkins I don't understand the claim of your first paragraph. If one takes the union of two multiverses of countable models, it will still satisfy the desired joint embedding property, because of my theorem on the fact that countable models are always comparable by embeddability (the multiverses must have models with nonstandard ordinals, and hence there will be universal objects there). Could you explain what you had in mind?
Dec 29, 2014 at 22:57 vote accept Kyle Gannon
Dec 29, 2014 at 23:19
Dec 29, 2014 at 22:29 comment added Noah Schweber Although of course in the second paragraph, I'm assuming that by "interpretable" you mean "interpretable with parameters." If you mean parameter-free interpretability, then I'm pretty sure the answer goes back to "no."
Dec 29, 2014 at 22:26 history answered Noah Schweber CC BY-SA 3.0