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Feb 16, 2020 at 2:02 comment added YCor I added the condition that the graph of $<$ is open, since the question is not very interesting without it (cf the remark on torsion-free abelian groups) and because it's the assumption made in the accepted answer.
Feb 16, 2020 at 2:00 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
added missing assumption, added tag
Dec 16, 2014 at 23:53 vote accept Pablo
Dec 16, 2014 at 19:38 answer added Jan-Christoph Schlage-Puchta timeline score: 7
Dec 15, 2014 at 17:09 comment added Benjamin Steinberg The partial order is a set of ordered pairs. If this is set is closed in the product topology the ordering will be trivial.
Dec 15, 2014 at 16:24 comment added Pablo Benjamin, I do not understand your comment. The profinite group is not necessarily a product of finite groups.
Dec 15, 2014 at 15:47 review Close votes
Dec 16, 2014 at 7:03
Dec 15, 2014 at 15:25 comment added Benjamin Steinberg If the order is closed in the topology on the direct product the answer is no by reduction to the finite case I believe.
Dec 15, 2014 at 14:26 comment added jmc Ok, yes, a relation with the topology is very reasonable. (I kind of assumed it, but indeed, you did not state it.)
Dec 15, 2014 at 14:20 comment added Pablo @jmc maybe continuous orders should be considered since by a result of Levi every abelian group with no torsion is orderable and this works for the additive profinite p-adic groups.
Dec 15, 2014 at 13:08 comment added jmc My guess would be that only $G = \{1\}$ works (finite groups are profinite). I don't have any proofs though.
Dec 15, 2014 at 13:03 history asked Pablo CC BY-SA 3.0