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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
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Jan 7, 2017 at 9:40 comment added bof The Shelah result you quote fails to be "non-trivial" in the sense of being "the only method for producing the required finite object." A finite graph with that Ramsey property was constructed (without forcing!) by Jon Folkman, Graphs with monochromatic complete subgraphs in every edge coloring, SIAM J. Appl. Math. 18 (1970), 19–24, apparently some years before Shelah's forcing result.
Dec 16, 2014 at 16:48 comment added Simon Henry This comment is clearly outside the scope of this question, but I think is relevant: Using 'forcing' to construct an object is actually a common technique in intuitionist/constructive mathematics. The localic tychonof theorem, or the localic Hahn-Banach theorem can be sought of as theorem asserting that some object can be constructed in a forcing model ( a linear form or a point in an infinite product). And it is frequent that those "localic" theorem actually allows to construct an object by first constructing it in the new model and then using a descent argument.
Dec 16, 2014 at 16:07 history edited Mohammad Golshani CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 15, 2014 at 15:21 comment added Timothy Chow Not exactly what you're asking for because it doesn't involve forcing, but Harvey Friedman has used axioms beyond ZFC to prove the existence of finite objects. mathoverflow.net/questions/27864/…
Dec 15, 2014 at 12:13 comment added Joel David Hamkins See also mathoverflow.net/q/29945/1946 and mathoverflow.net/q/42569/1946.
Dec 15, 2014 at 12:07 answer added Joel David Hamkins timeline score: 17
Dec 15, 2014 at 5:10 history edited Mohammad Golshani CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 15, 2014 at 4:47 history asked Mohammad Golshani CC BY-SA 3.0