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Jan 26, 2015 at 9:02 comment added MikeTeX David : I have just realized that I even not voted for your answers (this is done now). I appologize : I was entirely new in Mathoverflow and not used with the customs here.
Dec 11, 2014 at 19:52 vote accept MikeTeX
Dec 11, 2014 at 18:24 comment added David Lampert @MikeTex: Any s in D preserves the local ring at v so it preserves valuations for all elements of value 0 (they are the units of the local ring). The value group of K is of finite index in the value group of the finite extension L, so if x is in L then there exist integer n and y in K such that v(x^n/y)=0. This implies that nv(x)-v(y)=v(x^n/y)=0=v(s(x^n/y))=v(s(x)^n/y)=nv(s(x))-v(y) and thus v(s(x))=v(x) because the value group is ordered and so torsion free.
Dec 11, 2014 at 16:23 comment added MikeTeX To be more explicit, D is by definition the group of automorphisms such that $\sigma O_v = O_v$. If $\tau$ is an automorphism of the ordered group of values of v, then the valuation v' defined by $v'(x) = \tau v(x)$ has the same valuation ring as v, but is not exactly equal to v, only equivalent to it. So, D is the group that preserves v up to an equivalence.
Dec 11, 2014 at 16:00 comment added MikeTeX I am not sure you have understood my question. D consists in the automorphisms of G that preserve de valuation v of L UP TO AN EQUIVALENCE, but I asked for the group of automorphisms of G that preserve exactly the valuation v (let us denote this group by J, by analogy with the inertia group I which is the set of automorphisms of G that preserves exactly a place F, not up to an equivalence). My second question is related to an analogue of Frobenius theorem.
Dec 11, 2014 at 15:05 history answered David Lampert CC BY-SA 3.0