Skip to main content

Question regrading toregarding Laplace equation under Evans setting

All the following we use Evans notation.

By Green's reconstruction formula, we could represent $u$ by $$ u(x)=\int_\Omega-\triangle u(y)G(x,y)dy-\int_{\partial \Omega}u(y)\partial_\nu G(x,y)d\sigma(y) $$ where $\Omega$ is open bounded with smooth boundary and $\nu$ is the outer normal vector, $G(x,y)$ is the Green function.

The book gives the prove of this formula based on the fact that $u\in C^2(\bar{\Omega})$. My professor says that by standard approximation we could have the result for $C^2(\Omega)\cap C^0(\bar{ \Omega})$

I got stuck on how this approximation works. What kind of approximation should I use here?

And my second question: Suppose now $u=0$ on $\partial\Omega$, then the formula $$ u(x)=\int_\Omega-\triangle u(y)G(x,y)dy$$ should hold such that $u(x)\to 0$ as $x\to\partial\Omega$. However, I can't prove it...

Please give me some hints!

Thx!Thank you.

Question regrading to Laplace equation under Evans setting

All the following we use Evans notation.

By Green's reconstruction formula, we could represent $u$ by $$ u(x)=\int_\Omega-\triangle u(y)G(x,y)dy-\int_{\partial \Omega}u(y)\partial_\nu G(x,y)d\sigma(y) $$ where $\Omega$ is open bounded with smooth boundary and $\nu$ is the outer normal vector, $G(x,y)$ is the Green function.

The book gives the prove of this formula based on the fact that $u\in C^2(\bar{\Omega})$. My professor says that by standard approximation we could have the result for $C^2(\Omega)\cap C^0(\bar{ \Omega})$

I got stuck on how this approximation works. What kind of approximation should I use here?

And my second question: Suppose now $u=0$ on $\partial\Omega$, then the formula $$ u(x)=\int_\Omega-\triangle u(y)G(x,y)dy$$ should hold such that $u(x)\to 0$ as $x\to\partial\Omega$. However, I can't prove it...

Please give me some hints!

Thx!

Question regarding Laplace equation under Evans setting

All the following we use Evans notation.

By Green's reconstruction formula, we could represent $u$ by $$ u(x)=\int_\Omega-\triangle u(y)G(x,y)dy-\int_{\partial \Omega}u(y)\partial_\nu G(x,y)d\sigma(y) $$ where $\Omega$ is open bounded with smooth boundary and $\nu$ is the outer normal vector, $G(x,y)$ is the Green function.

The book gives the prove of this formula based on the fact that $u\in C^2(\bar{\Omega})$. My professor says that by standard approximation we could have the result for $C^2(\Omega)\cap C^0(\bar{ \Omega})$

I got stuck on how this approximation works. What kind of approximation should I use here?

And my second question: Suppose now $u=0$ on $\partial\Omega$, then the formula $$ u(x)=\int_\Omega-\triangle u(y)G(x,y)dy$$ should hold such that $u(x)\to 0$ as $x\to\partial\Omega$. However, I can't prove it...

Thank you.

Source Link
JumpJump
  • 679
  • 3
  • 13

Question regrading to Laplace equation under Evans setting

All the following we use Evans notation.

By Green's reconstruction formula, we could represent $u$ by $$ u(x)=\int_\Omega-\triangle u(y)G(x,y)dy-\int_{\partial \Omega}u(y)\partial_\nu G(x,y)d\sigma(y) $$ where $\Omega$ is open bounded with smooth boundary and $\nu$ is the outer normal vector, $G(x,y)$ is the Green function.

The book gives the prove of this formula based on the fact that $u\in C^2(\bar{\Omega})$. My professor says that by standard approximation we could have the result for $C^2(\Omega)\cap C^0(\bar{ \Omega})$

I got stuck on how this approximation works. What kind of approximation should I use here?

And my second question: Suppose now $u=0$ on $\partial\Omega$, then the formula $$ u(x)=\int_\Omega-\triangle u(y)G(x,y)dy$$ should hold such that $u(x)\to 0$ as $x\to\partial\Omega$. However, I can't prove it...

Please give me some hints!

Thx!