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Mar 20, 2010 at 18:21 comment added Noam Zeilberger let me qualify that last point: there certainly <i>appears</i> to be a strong asymmetry here, and as far as I know no one has attempt to translate infinitary extensional proofs back to finitary intensional proofs. Though perhaps it is possible given the right reflection principles in the metalogic.
Mar 20, 2010 at 16:53 history answered Noam Zeilberger CC BY-SA 2.5