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Jan 19, 2018 at 18:26 answer added echinodermata timeline score: 7
Dec 20, 2014 at 18:04 vote accept GH from MO
Dec 6, 2014 at 21:11 history edited GH from MO
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Dec 6, 2014 at 11:23 answer added juan timeline score: 19
Dec 4, 2014 at 17:23 comment added GH from MO @FredKline: Edwards does not emphasize the validity of his formula for $n=0$, in fact the previous display suggests that he meant it only for $n\geq 1$. At any rate, what you say is fine, but it does not answer my question.
Dec 4, 2014 at 17:15 comment added Fred Daniel Kline From Edwards, p 12, (1): for $n=0$,$$\zeta (2 n)=\frac{(-1)^{n+1} 2^{2 n-1} \pi ^{2 n} B_{2 n}}{(2 n)!}=\frac{(-1)^{n+1} 2^{2 n-1} \pi ^{2 n}}{(2 n)!}=-\frac{1}{2},$$ with and without the Bernoulli number.
Dec 4, 2014 at 14:37 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 4, 2014 at 8:09 comment added GH from MO @TomCopeland: I am not so sure about that. Of course the Taylor series for $\psi(1+x)$ together with the last identity you mention yields an alternate proof of the 2nd identity in my post. But I don't see how this could answer my question, given that $\zeta(0)$ does not pop up naturally in the mentioned series. On the other hand, the $1/x$ term in the digamma identity has a clear and simple source, namely the identity $\Gamma(x+1)=x\Gamma(x)$. Once again, the issue is not why in my 2nd identity the constant term is $-1/2$ but why it equals $\zeta(0)$ as one would expect from that identity.
Dec 2, 2014 at 18:07 comment added GH from MO @echinodermata: Excellent point!
Dec 2, 2014 at 17:53 comment added echinodermata Don't forget the series also predicts that $\zeta(-2k)=0$ for negative $k$.
Nov 29, 2014 at 17:25 comment added GH from MO @Agno: Your first formula is really about the relation of $\Gamma$ to $\sin$ and $\cos$, since by the functional equation for $\zeta$, the right hand side is a product of two ratios of $\Gamma$-values. So I think it is unrelated to my question, no matter how pretty the formula is.
Nov 29, 2014 at 17:00 comment added Agno Just one additional thought. When equating both $\cot$ functions (by multiplying mine by $\frac{z^2}{2}$) and starting the infinite sum at $k=0$, a quite beautiful relation emerges between a (weighted) sum and a product of zetas that is valid in the domain $0<|z|<1$: $$\frac{\zeta(1+2\,z) \, \zeta(1-2\,z)}{\zeta(2\,z) \, \zeta(-2\,z)} = 2 \, \sum_{k=0}^\infty\zeta(2k)\,z^{2k-2}$$
Nov 29, 2014 at 15:48 comment added Agno I guess this is probably unrelated to your question, but just wanted to share another nice link between $\cot$ and $\zeta$ that I recently found. It is easy to derive from the reflection formula (just multiply $\zeta(s)$ and $\zeta(-s)$). $$-\frac{\pi}{z}\cot\left(\pi\, z\right)=\frac{\zeta(1+2\,z) \, \zeta(1-2\,z)}{\zeta(2\,z) \, \zeta(-2\,z)}$$
Nov 29, 2014 at 13:23 comment added Liviu Nicolaescu I do not have a convincing answer to your question.
Nov 29, 2014 at 13:19 comment added GH from MO @LiviuNicolaescu: Thank you for your valuable comments. I looked at both sources, and indeed they do discuss Bernoulli numbers/polynomials, the analytic continuation of $\zeta(s)$, and the evaluation of $\zeta(0)$ and $\zeta(2k)$. Cartier also discusses a variant of my initial identity in Exercise 17, expressing $\coth(z/2)$ by a similar sum. Still, it is not clear to me how these discussions answer my question, perhaps I should read them in detail.
Nov 29, 2014 at 12:39 comment added Liviu Nicolaescu The proof I know use Euler's summation method. Hardy's less known gem, Divergent series, discusses this, I think in the last chapter. Another place I think I saw this is P. Cartier's contribution in the volume From Number Theory to Physics, Springer 1992. (I don't have any of these sources in front of me.)
Nov 29, 2014 at 12:24 history asked GH from MO CC BY-SA 3.0