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Nov 28, 2014 at 5:22 vote accept user60933
Nov 28, 2014 at 5:19 answer added Kevin Walker timeline score: 2
Nov 28, 2014 at 5:12 review Close votes
Dec 9, 2014 at 3:04
Nov 28, 2014 at 4:53 comment added Ryan Budney $\mathbb RP^3$ is orientable.
Nov 28, 2014 at 3:59 answer added ThiKu timeline score: 3
Nov 28, 2014 at 3:15 comment added user60933 What if I add a condition "orientable". The 2nd defenition allow nonorientability in their paper, I didn't copy it.
Nov 28, 2014 at 3:13 comment added Ryan Budney Then your 1st sentence is incorrect. $\mathbb RP^3$ is not a handlebody, in any definition of the term.
Nov 28, 2014 at 3:06 comment added user60933 I looked at the wikipedia's page of Handlebody, which is the 1st occurance. This is what meant in their paper "Μ is homeomorphic to a ball or to a ball with a finite number of solid handles". So this means different things? or simply means no handle can be attached along $S^1\times I$?
Nov 28, 2014 at 3:00 comment added Ryan Budney It sounds like different notions of "handlebody" are being used in your two usages of the term. You might want to check which assumptions everyone is using. Your 1st occurance contradicts the standard notion of handlebody in 3-manifold theory and should probably be stated as "has a handle decomposition". The 2nd occurrence is likely more close to a traditional 3-manifold theoretic notion of handlebody -- for example, go to the Wikipedia page for Heegaard Splitting.
Nov 28, 2014 at 2:42 history asked user60933 CC BY-SA 3.0