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Nov 26, 2014 at 11:13 comment added loup blanc @ Lin , I don't think so ; yet even if $-1$ is never an eigenvalue, that does not imply that $C_n<2$ because $C_n$ may be a LimitSup.
Nov 26, 2014 at 0:48 comment added M. Lin For some finite $n$, can $U$ have an eigenvalue $-1$?
Nov 25, 2014 at 23:01 history edited loup blanc CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 25, 2014 at 22:56 history answered loup blanc CC BY-SA 3.0