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Nov 15, 2016 at 3:02 comment added Joseph Hundley How is $L(s, \pi \times \widetilde \pi)$ for $\pi$ as above defined? Likewise $L(s, \pi \times \bar \phi)$?
May 8, 2015 at 21:41 comment added Sylvain JULIEN Regarding your first question, i.e the "Eulerianity" of the L-function you consider, wouldn't this follow from the fact that the Selberg class should be closed under tensor product (i.e Rankin-Selberg convolution on the automorphic side)?
Nov 17, 2014 at 22:26 history asked Subhajit Jana CC BY-SA 3.0