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Timeline for Orthogonal projection

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Nov 15, 2014 at 7:41 comment added Pietro Majer OK, by invertible operator I mean a linear homeomorphism $ A:H\to H$ , thus more than just $0\in\rho(A)$ . So yes, the answer was somehow misleading.
Nov 15, 2014 at 7:38 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 14, 2014 at 22:44 comment added Christian Remling Yes, I also interpret $\rho(G_0)$ as the resolvent set (= complement of the spectrum), so $0\in\rho(G_0)$ precisely if $G_0$ is injective and $G_0^{-1}\in B(H)$ (but $G_0$ itself need not be bounded, of course).
Nov 14, 2014 at 22:15 comment added Pietro Majer But I understand $0\in\rho(G_0)$ as: $G_0$ being an invertible operator; therefore: $0\notin\sigma(G_0)$ and $\sigma(G_0)$ bounded... Why we don't need the latter?
Nov 14, 2014 at 22:08 comment added Pietro Majer Yes, but I preferred to write it independently from the assumption "compact resolvent", to make a precise statement. Yes, "compact resolvent" implies 0 is automatically isolated, and $\sigma(G)$ unbounded.
Nov 14, 2014 at 20:54 comment added Christian Remling In other words, the answer to the second question is just "yes."
Nov 14, 2014 at 20:52 comment added Christian Remling The last statement is misleading: $0$ is automatically isolated in the spectrum because $G$ was assumed to have compact resolvent; $\sigma(G)$ will not be bounded, but we don't need this either.
Nov 14, 2014 at 18:54 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 14, 2014 at 18:32 history answered Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0