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Timeline for Disjoint images of polynomials

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Nov 15, 2014 at 0:11 comment added Bjorn Poonen If $f$ and $g$ are of degree $5$, with leading coefficients $\alpha$ and $\beta$, then $f(x)=g(y)$ and the line $\alpha^{1/5} x = \beta^{1/5} y$ intersect in either the whole line or in four points with multiplicity (the fifth being at infinity in the projective closure); in either case, one finds solutions in $\mathbb{Q}^{\operatorname{sol}}$, by solving a quartic equation if necessary.
Nov 14, 2014 at 7:05 comment added Pablo @BjornPoonen another way to see this is that you have used the fact that $(\mathbb{Q}^{\text{ab}})^{\times}$ is not divisible, which obviously does not generalize to the field of radicals. Also note that curves which arise in this manner (i.e $f(x) - g(y)$) are of very specific type (no?) so it well may be that for these curves the existence of a rational point can be proved. I am even ready to restrict my attention to $f,g$ of degree $5$. What do you think?
Nov 14, 2014 at 3:02 comment added Bjorn Poonen @Pablo: I don't know how to do it for $\mathbb{Q}^{\operatorname{sol}}$ instead of $\mathbb{Q}^{\operatorname{ab}}$. The trick behind my example above was to choose $f$ and $g$ so that $f(x)=g(y)$ has no geometrically irreducible component over $\mathbb{Q}^{\operatorname{ab}}$, but that idea doesn't seem to be implementable over $\mathbb{Q}^{\operatorname{sol}}$. Whether every geometrically irreducible curve over $\mathbb{Q}^{\operatorname{sol}}$ has a rational point is an open question, as far as I know.
Nov 14, 2014 at 2:49 history edited Bjorn Poonen CC BY-SA 3.0
added 1 character in body
Nov 14, 2014 at 2:48 comment added Bjorn Poonen @ACL: Oops, yes. I'll fix this.
Nov 13, 2014 at 23:26 comment added Pablo And what if $\mathbb{Q}^{\text{sol}}$ is taken instead of $\mathbb{Q}^{\text{ab}}$?
Nov 13, 2014 at 23:26 vote accept Pablo
Nov 13, 2014 at 23:20 vote accept Pablo
Nov 13, 2014 at 23:26
Nov 13, 2014 at 23:13 comment added ACL So doesn't it mean that the answer is yes?
Nov 13, 2014 at 23:10 comment added Joe Silverman You beat me to it. I was about to post "A silly observation is you can take $f(x)=1$ and $g(x)=2$. So presumably you want $f$ and $g$ non-constant," and then follow that with the observation that the OP is looking at points on curves defined over $\mathbb{Q}^{\text{ab}}$, for which it shouldn't be hard to produce examples with no points (as you just did).
Nov 13, 2014 at 23:08 history answered Bjorn Poonen CC BY-SA 3.0