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Apr 14, 2021 at 8:24 comment added Feng Why can we assume that $\inf_{\partial B_{1/2}}<\epsilon$ for $R$ large? I can’t understand how was the maximum principle used in this step. Can you elaborate? Thanks in advance.
Nov 21, 2014 at 14:10 vote accept Craig
Nov 13, 2014 at 1:52 comment added Craig Thank you very much for the proof. Do you have any intuition on whether you think the Liouville theorem should hold under this gradient condition?
Nov 13, 2014 at 1:23 history answered Connor Mooney CC BY-SA 3.0