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Nov 12, 2014 at 21:03 history edited Jason Sawyer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 12, 2014 at 20:58 review Close votes
Nov 13, 2014 at 10:36
Nov 12, 2014 at 20:57 comment added Felipe Voloch Why do you need linear forms in logs? Also if $b=0,c=-2$, there are infinitely many solutions with $z_i=0$, for example.
Nov 12, 2014 at 20:54 history edited Jason Sawyer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 12, 2014 at 20:53 comment added Jason Sawyer @DanielLoughran : With the condition (x,y)=1, I am pretty sure the solution set is provably finite. (If the homogeneous polynomial on the left-hand side was irreducible of degree larger than 3, it's called a Thue-Mahler equation and it's well-known there is an effective algorithm to determine the finite number of solutions).
Nov 12, 2014 at 20:52 comment added Jason Sawyer @FelipeVoloch That's true. And if you want to compute them you are looking at linear forms in logarithms. But I have a feeling that this should be simpler than the Thue-Mahler equation where the left-hand side is a homogeneous polynomial in x,y of degree at least 3. Perhaps it's just that you can use Davenport's lemma rather than linear forms in logs and LLL reduction. In any case, I can't find a reference and I'd like to.
Nov 12, 2014 at 20:46 comment added Daniel Loughran It seems difficult to imagine an algorithm which could enumerate such a possibly infinite set. Certainly there is a very simple algorthim which will find all solutions given an infinite amount of time.
Nov 12, 2014 at 20:25 comment added Felipe Voloch If the left-hand side is irreducible over the rationals and you go to the quadratic field where it factors, then you are looking at the $S$-units of that field where $S=\{p_1,\ldots,p_k\}$ and the generalization of the Dirichlet unit theorem to $S$-units describes all the solutions.
Nov 12, 2014 at 19:54 comment added Jason Sawyer @eric : Naturally, I meant to find all the solutions. Not just one of them. The question has been edited to clarify this.
Nov 12, 2014 at 19:52 history edited Jason Sawyer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 12, 2014 at 19:49 comment added eric Yes: $x=1$ and everything else is 0.
Nov 12, 2014 at 19:41 history edited Jason Sawyer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 12, 2014 at 19:25 history asked Jason Sawyer CC BY-SA 3.0