A number of people have asked me for this overa reference since I wrote down that answer in the past couple yearsother question so maybe I shouldI'll try to write it downa reference here (even though I think theI'm sure some experts already knew it). Let me write a slighter weaker statement (with excruciating details before though) first to get the idea. I'll try to add I originally wrote a more general statementcomplicated Noetherian induction in the next couple days. Regardless, please let me know about typos etc.
Lemma: Suppose first that $R \subseteq S$ is an extension of reduced Noetherian rings which is finite, birational and such that it is an isomorphism outside of a single closed point $\mathfrak{m} \in \text{Spec }R$. Then there an ideal $J \subseteq S$ with $J = J' S$ and a ring homomorphism $R/J' = T \to S/J$ such that $R$ is the pullback of $\big( S \to S/J \leftarrow T \big).$ is isomorphic to $R$ via the induced map.
this answer Proof:but Obviously I want to use $J' = \mathfrak{m}^n$ for some $n \gg 0$ and $J = J' S$. There's one slight problem, the map $R/J' \to S/J$just realized this is not necessarily injective. So lets set $J'_n = (\mathfrak{m}^n S) \cap R$ and observe that then $J_n' S = ((\mathfrak{m}^n S) \cap R)S \subseteq \mathfrak{m}^n S$ hence $(J_n' S) \cap R = J_n'$. Note that the $J'_n$ are contained in the integral closure of $\mathfrak{m}^n$ and so are co-final with the $\mathfrak{m}^n$really easy.
Next, for eachSuppose $n$ set $R_n$ to be the pullback$R \subseteq S$ a finite birational extension of $\big( S \to S/J_n \leftarrow R/J'_n \big)$reduced rings. We have the maps Let $R \to R_n \to S$$I = \text{Ann}_{K(R)}(S/R)$ (and these are injective because ofa fractional ideal -- usually called the work aboveconductor). The sequence Note that $\{R_n / R\} \subseteq S/R$$I$ is a sequencean ideal of descending Artinian modules, and so $R_n/R$ stabilizes for $n \gg 0$. But then $R_n$ stabilizes for $n \gg 0$$R$ (by Nakayama). Hence for $n \gg 0$ and any $m \gg n$, $$(R_n/R)/(J'_m (R_n/R)) = (R_m/R)/(J'_m (R_m/R)) = (R_m/J_m) \big/ (R/J_m').$$
But now we claim that $R/J_m' = R_m/J_m$. To see this consider the map $R \to R_m/J_m$ and choose an element $\overline{(s, \overline{r})}$since in particular it multiplies $R_m/J_m$, here we represent elements of the pullback as a pair with an element of$R$ back into $S$ and$R$) but it is also an elementideal of $R/J_m'$. The claim is that $r \in R$ maps to it. We want to show that $s - r \in J_m$. But we already knew that was true since $(s, \overline{r})$ was in $R_m$$S$. Hence Indeed, take $R \to R_m/J_m$ is surjective$s \in S$ and the kernel is obviously $J_m'$. This proves the claim.
But now, claim in hand$x \in I$, we see that $(R_n/R)/J_m' = 0$ for all $m \gg 0$. Hencethen $R_n = R$ since the$xs$ also still multiplies other $J_m'$ are cofinal with the$s' \in S$ into $\mathfrak{m}^m$$R$ as well. $\square$
That's great, and it immediately yields the weaker statement:
PropositionTheorem: Any non-normal reduced excellent Noetherian ring can be obtainedWith notation as the final output of a finite sequence of pullbacks of rings $R_{i+1} = (R_i \to R_i/J_i \leftarrow R/J_i')$ where eachabove if $R \subseteq R_i$$A$ is a subring of the normalization,pullback of $J_i' \subseteq R$ is an ideal, and$\big( S \to S/I \leftarrow R/I \big)$ then $J_i = J_i' R_i$$A = R$.
Proof: Suppose that $R$ is non-normal with normalization $R' = R_0$. Let $Q_1, \ldots, Q_t \subseteq R$ be the minimal primes of the locus whereObviously we have $R \subseteq R_0$ is not an isomorphism$R \subseteq A \subseteq S$. The lemma (and a bit of localization) guarantees We want to show that if we set $J_{0,n}' = ((Q_1 \cdots Q_t)^n R_0) \cap R$ for $n \gg 0$, we can find $R_1$$R \to A$ surjects as the pullback ofwell. Take an element $\Big(R_0 \to R_0/J_{0,n} \leftarrow R/J_{0,n}' \Big)$ for$(s, \overline{r})$ in $n \gg 0$ so that$A$ $R_1/R$(this is supported on a locus strictly inside the supportpair of $R_0/R$. Now do the same thing forelements $R \subseteq R_1$. Noetherian induction finishes it off. $\square$
But perhaps we wanted a single pullback$s \in S$ and not a sequence of them. As I mentioned above, I'll try to write down the details$\overline{r} \in R/I$ with common image in the next day or so, they should be very similar. (Or maybe there is an obvious way to combine a couple gluing diagrams into a single diagram$S/I$).
EDIT: A quick speculation, if Let $R \subseteq S$ is finite birational$r \in R$ be any representative for $\overline{r}$. Consider the conductor ideal $I = \text{Ann}_R(S/R)$$s - r \in S$. This Obviously $s-r$ is an ideal of bothsent to zero in $R$$S/I$ and so $S$$s - r \in I \subseteq R$. Then consider the pullback, But then $A = \{ S \to S/I \leftarrow R/I \}$$s \in R$ as well. Is
The map $A$ equal to$R \to A$ sends $R$? It's true for seminormal$x$ to $R$ since$(x, \overline{x})$. Therefore the conductor is radical in both $R$ andmap $S$$R \to A$ surjects as claimed.
$\square$