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Nov 5, 2014 at 8:11 comment added Jochen Wengenroth In general, $ZX_i$ are only in $L^1(\Omega,P)$ so that the covariance is not necessarily defined. $Z\in L^\infty$ would be okay.
Nov 4, 2014 at 19:39 answer added Liviu Nicolaescu timeline score: 1
Nov 4, 2014 at 16:56 history asked splinter123 CC BY-SA 3.0