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user27920
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No, it fails even[I originally gave what I thought to be a counterexample in the affine case, but I realized it violates universal schematic dominance, so below I give a non-qc counterexample that was originally a comment. Let]

Let $R$$A = \mathbf{F}_2^I$ be a rank-1 valuation ring whose nonzero maximal idealproduct of copies of $m$ satisfies$\mathbf{F}_2$ indexed by an infinite set $m^2 = m$$I$, and let (e.g$S = {\rm{Spec}}(A)$., the valuation Observe that every local ring of an algebraic closure or completed algebraic closureon $S$ is $\mathbf{F}_2$ since every element of a complete discretely-valued field)$A$ is idempotent. Let $\pi \in m$$X$ be a nonzero element of the maximal idea, sodisjoint union of the fraction field $K$evident collection of clopen points $R$ is equal to(indexed by $R[1/\pi]$. Let$I$) and the reduced structure $R' = K \times R/m$$Y$ on the closed complement of their union. ThenLet $f:X \rightarrow S$ be the natural map $f: {\rm{Spec}}(R') \rightarrow {\rm{Spec}}(R)$. This is a counterexample inuniversal bijection (built from the affine case becausestratification by $R \rightarrow R/m$$Y$ and $S-Y$) and an isomorphism on local rings, so faithfully flat. In particular, it is universally schematically dominant. It is not even qc (since $I$ is infinite), so not an isomorphism. The interesting thing is that it is formally etale. This amounts to showing $f|_Y:Y \rightarrow S$ is formally etale.

What underlies this is the fact thatMore generally, if $A$ is aany ring and $J$ is an ideal such that $J^2 = J$ (such as $A$ as above and $J$ the ideal of $Y$ in $S$) then $A \rightarrow A/J$ is formally etale (that being a non-flat map when $J \ne 0$ and ${\rm{Spec}}(A/J)$ is not open in Spec($A$), such as happens above, so perhaps slightly surprising at first sight, but not really surprising if one reflects on the logical structure of things). This is the standard counterexample to EGA 0$_{\rm{IV}}$ 19.10.3(i) and to EGA IV$_4$ 18.4.6(i) (whose "proof" ends by invoking EGA 0$_{\rm{IV}}$, 19.10.3(i)).

No, it fails even in the affine case. Let $R$ be a rank-1 valuation ring whose nonzero maximal ideal $m$ satisfies $m^2 = m$ (e.g., the valuation ring of an algebraic closure or completed algebraic closure of a complete discretely-valued field). Let $\pi \in m$ be a nonzero element of the maximal idea, so the fraction field $K$ of $R$ is equal to $R[1/\pi]$. Let $R' = K \times R/m$. Then the natural map $f: {\rm{Spec}}(R') \rightarrow {\rm{Spec}}(R)$ is a counterexample in the affine case because $R \rightarrow R/m$ is formally etale.

What underlies this is the fact that if $A$ is a ring and $J$ is an ideal such that $J^2 = J$ then $A \rightarrow A/J$ is formally etale (that being a non-flat map when $J \ne 0$, so perhaps slightly surprising at first sight, but not really surprising if one reflects on the logical structure of things). This is the standard counterexample to EGA 0$_{\rm{IV}}$ 19.10.3(i) and to EGA IV$_4$ 18.4.6(i) (whose "proof" ends by invoking EGA 0$_{\rm{IV}}$, 19.10.3(i)).

[I originally gave what I thought to be a counterexample in the affine case, but I realized it violates universal schematic dominance, so below I give a non-qc counterexample that was originally a comment.]

Let $A = \mathbf{F}_2^I$ be a product of copies of $\mathbf{F}_2$ indexed by an infinite set $I$, and let $S = {\rm{Spec}}(A)$. Observe that every local ring on $S$ is $\mathbf{F}_2$ since every element of $A$ is idempotent. Let $X$ be the disjoint union of the evident collection of clopen points (indexed by $I$) and the reduced structure $Y$ on the closed complement of their union. Let $f:X \rightarrow S$ be the natural map. This is a universal bijection (built from the stratification by $Y$ and $S-Y$) and an isomorphism on local rings, so faithfully flat. In particular, it is universally schematically dominant. It is not even qc (since $I$ is infinite), so not an isomorphism. The interesting thing is that it is formally etale. This amounts to showing $f|_Y:Y \rightarrow S$ is formally etale.

More generally, if $A$ is any ring and $J$ is an ideal such that $J^2 = J$ (such as $A$ as above and $J$ the ideal of $Y$ in $S$) then $A \rightarrow A/J$ is formally etale (that being a non-flat map when $J \ne 0$ and ${\rm{Spec}}(A/J)$ is not open in Spec($A$), such as happens above, so perhaps slightly surprising at first sight). This is the standard counterexample to EGA 0$_{\rm{IV}}$ 19.10.3(i) and to EGA IV$_4$ 18.4.6(i) (whose "proof" ends by invoking EGA 0$_{\rm{IV}}$, 19.10.3(i)).

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user27920
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No, it fails even in the affine case. Let $R$ be a rank-1 valuation ring whose nonzero maximal ideal $m$ satisfies $m^2 = m$ (e.g., the valuation ring of an algebraic closure or completed algebraic closure of a complete discretely-valued field). Let $\pi \in m$ be a nonzero element of the maximal idea, so the fraction field $K$ of $R$ is equal to $R[1/\pi]$. Let $R' = K \times R/m$. Then the natural map $f: {\rm{Spec}}(R') \rightarrow {\rm{Spec}}(R)$ is a counterexample in the affine case because $R \rightarrow R/m$ is formally etale.

What underlies this is the fact that if $A$ is a ring and $J$ is an ideal such that $J^2 = J$ then $A \rightarrow A/J$ is formally etale (that being a non-flat map when $J \ne 0$, so perhaps slightly surprising at first sight, but not really surprising if one reflects on the logical structure of things). This is the standard counterexample to EGA 0$_{\rm{IV}}$ 19.10.3(i) and to EGA IV$_4$ 18.4.6(i) (whose "proof" ends by invoking EGA 0$_{\rm{IV}}$, 19.10.3(i)).