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Jun 20, 2016 at 21:04 comment added R. van Dobben de Bruyn Can you explain how you get $H^i(\mathcal O_X) = 0$ for $i > 0$? Are you assuming that $X$ is a complete intersection?
Oct 31, 2014 at 5:14 comment added Daniel Litt Oops, you're right! I retract my claim. Does it not follow from the Weil conjectures then? (Not that I've had time to check yet...)
Oct 31, 2014 at 5:09 comment added Pete L. Clark My feeling on this is as follows: Warning's Second Theorem is an "Archimedean" inequality, not a $p$-adic congruence. It is known that it does not follow from the strongest possible $p$-adic congruence (Ax-Katz). Thus I find it counterintuitive that it could come out this way. So if you could show me such a proof even in the smooth homogeneous case, I would be quite interested.
Oct 31, 2014 at 4:56 history answered Daniel Litt CC BY-SA 3.0