I suspect that it has to do with the fact that the most likely outcome is $\lfloor 1/(x y) \rfloor=1$ (which happens to be odd), followed with an application of the Strong Law of Small Numbers. Here are some more details. Let $Z$ be the random variable $xy$. Note that $Z$ takes values in $[0,1]$ and $\lfloor 1/Z \rfloor$ is odd if and only if
$$ Z \in (1/2, 1] \cup (1/4, 1/3] \cup (1/6, 1/5] \cup \dots $$
Note that this set has measure more than 1/2$1/2$. However, the distribution of $Z$ is of course not uniform on [0,1]$[0,1]$ (it is actually skewed towards 0$0$ instead of 1$1$). I suspect what ends up happening is that the distribution of $\lfloor 1/Z \rfloor$ is almost perfectlyperfectly split between even and odd in the regimefor say $Z < 1/5$, and the discrepancy is thus a result of what happens for $Z > 1/5$$Z \geq 1/5$ (where one easily sees that odd wins out).