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Jan 25, 2021 at 16:19 comment added Dylan Thurston There are many good answers above, but it's worth noting that you have to be careful citing uniformization, because uniformization proofs frequently end up citing basic surface topology facts. (I came across this question in patching up one proof of uniformization.)
Nov 7, 2018 at 0:01 answer added JHM timeline score: 2
Jul 24, 2018 at 3:31 answer added Ian Agol timeline score: 11
Jul 23, 2018 at 20:12 answer added Sergiy Maksymenko timeline score: 2
May 25, 2018 at 15:17 vote accept Andy Putman
May 25, 2018 at 15:07 answer added Andy Putman timeline score: 12
S Oct 27, 2015 at 18:25 history suggested Ali Taghavi
I add two tags
Oct 27, 2015 at 18:06 review Suggested edits
S Oct 27, 2015 at 18:25
Mar 31, 2012 at 0:34 answer added Igor Rivin timeline score: 12
Mar 30, 2012 at 22:53 answer added Lee Mosher timeline score: 19
Mar 18, 2010 at 3:22 comment added Maharana ah, got it. Was thinking of a very special and easy case!
Mar 17, 2010 at 13:57 answer added Mohan Ramachandran timeline score: 21
Mar 17, 2010 at 13:44 comment added Andy Putman Maharana - I'm not talking about punctured surfaces. I'm talking about general noncompact surfaces, like a closed surface minus a Cantor set or the boundary of a regular neighborhood of an infinite graph embedded in R^3.
Mar 17, 2010 at 13:42 comment added Andy Putman Igor - Excellent observation! Thanks!
Mar 17, 2010 at 13:04 comment added Igor Belegradek Andy, one does not need uniformization to show that $S$ is Eilenberg-MacLane. Namely, the universal cover of $S$ is acyclic (it does not have homology above dimension $1$ by Poincare duality and it does not have first homology since it is simply-connected). Now Whitehead theorem gives you that the inclusion of any point into the universal cover is a homotopy equivalence.
Mar 17, 2010 at 6:11 comment added Maharana If you accept the polygonal representation of a closed surface on the plane, then a punctured surface will be represented by the same polygon with punctures easily managable to be in the interior, but now this picture clearly homotopes to a wedge of circles hence $\pi_1$ is free.
Mar 17, 2010 at 3:15 answer added Igor Belegradek timeline score: 11
Mar 17, 2010 at 2:57 vote accept Andy Putman
May 25, 2018 at 15:17
Mar 17, 2010 at 2:28 answer added John Stillwell timeline score: 44
Mar 17, 2010 at 1:24 history asked Andy Putman CC BY-SA 2.5