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Mar 31, 2010 at 1:28 answer added LSpice timeline score: 2
Mar 16, 2010 at 17:50 comment added Harald Hanche-Olsen @Gerald: How so? I am confused.
Mar 16, 2010 at 17:43 comment added Gerald Edgar Harald: the reason I asked was that your original example usually does not have the whole space open.
Mar 16, 2010 at 16:44 comment added Harald Hanche-Olsen @Gerald: Yes. But the whole space, and the empty set, are already open per the definition of topology. Surely, “complete lattice of sets” is correct, but not so good when I wish to emphasize the topology aspect. So I'll stick with Alexandrov space.
Mar 16, 2010 at 16:33 comment added Gerald Edgar Does "arbitrary" intersection should include "empty" intersection? Then the whole space must be "open". Similarly, arbitrary union means the empty set is "open". This is what I would call a "complete lattice of sets".
Mar 16, 2010 at 16:32 comment added Harald Hanche-Olsen Right; I noticed that in the Wikipedia article linked to from the answer.
Mar 16, 2010 at 16:14 comment added Joel David Hamkins It suffices in your example for the order relation to be only a pre-order. That is, you can allow x <= y <= x for distinct x, y. With this addition, the property is fully equivalent. Define x <= y if x is in every open set that y is in.
Mar 16, 2010 at 16:12 vote accept Harald Hanche-Olsen
Mar 16, 2010 at 16:12 history edited Harald Hanche-Olsen
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Mar 16, 2010 at 16:09 answer added Mariano Suárez-Álvarez timeline score: 16
Mar 16, 2010 at 16:07 history asked Harald Hanche-Olsen CC BY-SA 2.5