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Oct 4, 2014 at 12:16 answer added Hugo Chapdelaine timeline score: 0
Oct 4, 2014 at 1:59 vote accept Hugo Chapdelaine
Oct 4, 2014 at 1:54 vote accept Hugo Chapdelaine
Oct 4, 2014 at 1:59
Oct 3, 2014 at 21:14 answer added user59003 timeline score: 8
Oct 3, 2014 at 20:43 history edited Hugo Chapdelaine CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 2, 2014 at 14:14 comment added Felipe Voloch It's basically what Ari wrote.
Oct 2, 2014 at 12:26 comment added Hugo Chapdelaine Thanks @Felipe. You said in your answer (in the reference link you gave) "...with schemes it is completely obvious...", so may be you could write down or give me a sketch? Thanks in advance
Oct 2, 2014 at 11:55 history edited Hugo Chapdelaine CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 2, 2014 at 1:03 comment added Felipe Voloch mathoverflow.net/questions/59071/…
Oct 1, 2014 at 23:44 comment added Ariyan Javanpeykar Possibly. But what about working with the sheaf of differentials. This is a coherent sheaf on the arithmetic scheme defined by your polynomial. It is generically free by your assumption (of smoothness over the field of rational numbers). Do you see that it is locally free outside a finite set of primes?
Oct 1, 2014 at 23:42 answer added Ariyan Javanpeykar timeline score: 2
Oct 1, 2014 at 23:21 comment added Hugo Chapdelaine @Ari, is it possible to prove this result using the notion of resultant combined with an decreasing induction on the dimension?
Oct 1, 2014 at 23:19 history edited Hugo Chapdelaine CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 1, 2014 at 23:19 comment added Hugo Chapdelaine sorry sorry, I meant smooth connected (so irreducible), I'll reedit it!
Oct 1, 2014 at 22:39 comment added Ariyan Javanpeykar Not true. Take $f = y^2- x^3$. This is not smooth over the generic fibre. You need more than an irreducible polynomial. The type of statements you are looking for are sometimes coined "spreading out". See Bjorn Poonen's notes on rational points. For example, any nice morphism of schemes $X \to S$ which is generically smooth is smooth over an open of $S$. That's the statement you are looking for. (It's a consequence of the fact that the locus of smoothness is open. Thus, if your polynomial $f$ defines a smooth variety modulo some $p$, then it defines a smooth variety over $\mathbb Q$.)
Oct 1, 2014 at 22:20 history asked Hugo Chapdelaine CC BY-SA 3.0