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Sep 30, 2014 at 23:40 comment added user27920 If $L$ is perfect then every $x \in L$ has the form $x = y^p$ for some $y \in L$, so ${\rm{d}}x = 0$ in $\Omega_{L/K}$ for every subfield $K$ of $L$ without needing that blizzard of other mappings (and hence $\Omega_{L/K}$ always vanishes). What makes the vanishing seem strange?
Sep 30, 2014 at 21:49 comment added ACL My impression is that the indicated maps from the tensor products do not exist. Am I wrong?
Sep 30, 2014 at 21:22 history edited user58841
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Sep 30, 2014 at 21:19 review First posts
Sep 30, 2014 at 21:23
Sep 30, 2014 at 21:09 history asked user58841 CC BY-SA 3.0