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Sep 29, 2014 at 23:47 comment added S. Carnahan Any choice of $\mathbb{G}_m$-torsor gives you the sort of object you want. See the last section in Vistoli's notes on descent (on the arXiv).
Sep 29, 2014 at 7:45 history edited KylinChen CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 29, 2014 at 7:44 comment added KylinChen yes i mean G-equivariant...sorry
Sep 29, 2014 at 7:37 comment added abx You probably mean $G$-equivariant vector bundles. Then your $Y$ will just be the quotient stack $[X/G]$.
Sep 29, 2014 at 7:34 comment added Piotr Achinger "$G$-invariant" per se doesn't make much sense: it would mean $g^* E = E$ for every $g\in G$, but there is a choice involved! This leads to the notion of linearization of a vector bundle $E$: it's an isomorphism $f:\pi^* E \to \mu^* E$, where $\pi, \mu:G\times X\to X$ are the projection resp. the action, satisfying a certain "cocycle condition". The pair $(E, f)$ is called a $G$-equivariant bundle. This $f$ may be non-unique, as the example of $E=\mathcal{O}_X$ on $X=\mathbb{A}^1$ with the usual $\mathbb{G}_m$-action shows (here one has $\mathbb{Z}$ worth of possible choices).
Sep 29, 2014 at 7:30 comment added Piotr Achinger I think the claim about $A^n$ is false: vector bundles on $P^{n-1}$ correspond to $G_m$-equivariant vector bundles on $A^n \setminus \{0 \}$, and these don't have to extend to vector bundles on $A^n$. The tangent bundle of $P^{n-1}$ is a counterexample.
Sep 29, 2014 at 6:48 history asked KylinChen CC BY-SA 3.0