Skip to main content
9 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Oct 26, 2016 at 18:22 comment added LSpice What does "in a non-trivial way" mean? If $G$ is connected and semisimple, then your exact sequence is $1 \to G \to G \to 1 \to 1$.
Oct 12, 2014 at 22:43 comment added Jim Humphreys @user: "I've read .... "? Do you recall where this is written?
Oct 4, 2014 at 11:08 comment added Paul Levy Perhaps a better question is whether such a splitting exists if we replace $(G,G)$ by its connected component and similarly for $G/(G,G)$. I think the answer is still no: suppose $G^\circ=\GL_n$ and $G/G^\circ$ is cyclic of order 2, generated by $\theta$ satisfying $\theta g= ({^{t}}g^{-1})\theta$ and $\theta^2=-I$. If $n$ is even then there is a splitting (since $-I$ is the square of an element of $\SO_n$) but if $n$ is odd, then there is no element of $\theta G^\circ=G\setminus G^\circ$ of order 2. However, I think the corresponding statement might be true if we assume $G^\circ$ is simple.
Sep 26, 2014 at 0:47 comment added Venkataramana As to the original question, take $G$ to be a finite group (e.g the group of upper triangular unipotent matrices matrices with entries in $Z/3Z$. Then the commutator is the centre and the extension above does not split. If it did, the group would be abelian.
Sep 26, 2014 at 0:43 comment added Venkataramana @anon: what you say is not right: take the torus inside the diagonals in $GL_n$ all of whose entries except the first one are $1$. This maps iso to $GL_n/SL_n=G_m$.
Sep 25, 2014 at 22:05 review Close votes
Sep 26, 2014 at 15:32
Sep 25, 2014 at 18:02 history edited user58639 CC BY-SA 3.0
added 24 characters in body
Sep 25, 2014 at 17:55 review First posts
Sep 25, 2014 at 17:58
Sep 25, 2014 at 17:51 history asked user58639 CC BY-SA 3.0