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Sep 25, 2014 at 11:14 history edited Joe Silverman CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 25, 2014 at 10:49 vote accept Joseph O'Rourke
Sep 25, 2014 at 2:19 comment added user27920 For $c_p$ you meant to use $\mathbf{Q}_p$-points rather than $\mathbf{Q}$-points (and might be more natural, though equivalent, to define it to be $\#A_p(\mathbf{F}_p)/\#A_p^0(\mathbf{F}_p) = \#(A_p/A_p^0)(\mathbf{F}_p)$ where $A_p$ is the mod-$p$ reduction of the Neron model at $p$ and $A_p^0$ is its identity component, the second equality due to Lang's theorem).
Sep 25, 2014 at 0:08 comment added Joseph O'Rourke Hindry, Marc, and Joseph H. Silverman. Diophantine geometry: an Introduction. Vol. 201. Springer, 2000.
Sep 25, 2014 at 0:02 history answered Joe Silverman CC BY-SA 3.0