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Francois Ziegler
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In the manuscript "Determinationum progressio in infinitum" (pp. 668-675 of Sämtliche Schriften und Briefe, Reihe VII, Band 3, Teil C, available in pdf here), Leibniz writes on p. 673 (with "$\sqcap$" in place of "$=$"):

$$ \odot = \overline{dt}\int\frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}. \quad\text{Hence}\quad \overline{d\odot} = \frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}\overline{d\overline{dt}} $$

This amounts to asserting that $d[uv] = dv\,du$ where $u=dt$ and $v=\int\frac{a^2}{a^2+t^2}$; and thus differentiating the product wrong, as the editors comment in footnote 14. On p. 668 they take this as grounds to date the manuscript early November 1675, since by November 11 he had correctedwas pointing out this error (in "Methodi tangentium inversae exempla", quoted by Edwards in KConrad's comment above).

Addendum: The first time Leibniz gets his general rule right appears to be in "Pro methodo tangentium inversa et aliis tetragonisticis specimina et inventa" (dated 27 November 1675; pp. 361-371 of the same Sämtliche Schriften, Reihe VII, Band 5, Teil B; English translation here), where he writes on p. 365:

Therefore $d\overline xy = d\overline{xy}-xd\overline y$. Now this is a really noteworthy theorem and a general one for all curves.

In the manuscript "Determinationum progressio in infinitum" (pp. 668-675 of Sämtliche Schriften und Briefe, Reihe VII, Band 3, Teil C, available in pdf here), Leibniz writes on p. 673 (with "$\sqcap$" in place of "$=$"):

$$ \odot = \overline{dt}\int\frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}. \quad\text{Hence}\quad \overline{d\odot} = \frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}\overline{d\overline{dt}} $$

This amounts to asserting that $d[uv] = dv\,du$ where $u=dt$ and $v=\int\frac{a^2}{a^2+t^2}$; and thus differentiating the product wrong, as the editors comment in footnote 14. On p. 668 they take this as grounds to date the manuscript early November 1675, since by November 11 he had corrected this (in "Methodi tangentium inversae exempla", quoted by Edwards in KConrad's comment above).

In the manuscript "Determinationum progressio in infinitum" (pp. 668-675 of Sämtliche Schriften und Briefe, Reihe VII, Band 3, Teil C, available in pdf here), Leibniz writes on p. 673 (with "$\sqcap$" in place of "$=$"):

$$ \odot = \overline{dt}\int\frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}. \quad\text{Hence}\quad \overline{d\odot} = \frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}\overline{d\overline{dt}} $$

This amounts to asserting that $d[uv] = dv\,du$ where $u=dt$ and $v=\int\frac{a^2}{a^2+t^2}$; and thus differentiating the product wrong, as the editors comment in footnote 14. On p. 668 they take this as grounds to date the manuscript early November 1675, since by November 11 he was pointing out this error (in "Methodi tangentium inversae exempla", quoted by Edwards in KConrad's comment above).

Addendum: The first time Leibniz gets his general rule right appears to be in "Pro methodo tangentium inversa et aliis tetragonisticis specimina et inventa" (dated 27 November 1675; pp. 361-371 of the same Sämtliche Schriften, Reihe VII, Band 5, Teil B; English translation here), where he writes on p. 365:

Therefore $d\overline xy = d\overline{xy}-xd\overline y$. Now this is a really noteworthy theorem and a general one for all curves.

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Francois Ziegler
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  • 6
  • 121
  • 176

In the manuscript "Determinationum progressio in infinitum" (pp. 668-675 of Sämtliche Schriften und Briefe, Reihe VII, Band 3, Teil C, available in pdf here), Leibniz writes on p. 673 (with "$\sqcap$" in place of "$=$"):

$$ \odot = \overline{dt}\int\frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}. \quad\text{Hence}\quad \overline{d\odot} = \frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}\overline{d\overline{dt}} $$

This amounts to asserting that $d[uv] = dv\,du$ where $u=dt$ and $v=\int\frac{a^2}{a^2+t^2}$; and thus differentiating the product wrong, as the editors comment in footnote 14. On p. 668 they take this as grounds to date the manuscript early November 1675, since by November 11 he had the correct rulecorrected this (in "Methodi tangentium inversae exempla", quoted by Edwards in KConrad's comment above).

In the manuscript "Determinationum progressio in infinitum" (pp. 668-675 of Sämtliche Schriften und Briefe, Reihe VII, Band 3, Teil C, available in pdf here), Leibniz writes on p. 673 (with "$\sqcap$" in place of "$=$"):

$$ \odot = \overline{dt}\int\frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}. \quad\text{Hence}\quad \overline{d\odot} = \frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}\overline{d\overline{dt}} $$

This amounts to asserting that $d[uv] = dv\,du$ where $u=dt$ and $v=\int\frac{a^2}{a^2+t^2}$; and thus differentiating the product wrong, as the editors comment in footnote 14. On p. 668 they take this as grounds to date the manuscript early November 1675, since by November 11 he had the correct rule (in "Methodi tangentium inversae exempla", quoted by Edwards in KConrad's comment above).

In the manuscript "Determinationum progressio in infinitum" (pp. 668-675 of Sämtliche Schriften und Briefe, Reihe VII, Band 3, Teil C, available in pdf here), Leibniz writes on p. 673 (with "$\sqcap$" in place of "$=$"):

$$ \odot = \overline{dt}\int\frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}. \quad\text{Hence}\quad \overline{d\odot} = \frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}\overline{d\overline{dt}} $$

This amounts to asserting that $d[uv] = dv\,du$ where $u=dt$ and $v=\int\frac{a^2}{a^2+t^2}$; and thus differentiating the product wrong, as the editors comment in footnote 14. On p. 668 they take this as grounds to date the manuscript early November 1675, since by November 11 he had corrected this (in "Methodi tangentium inversae exempla", quoted by Edwards in KConrad's comment above).

Source Link
Francois Ziegler
  • 31.5k
  • 6
  • 121
  • 176

In the manuscript "Determinationum progressio in infinitum" (pp. 668-675 of Sämtliche Schriften und Briefe, Reihe VII, Band 3, Teil C, available in pdf here), Leibniz writes on p. 673 (with "$\sqcap$" in place of "$=$"):

$$ \odot = \overline{dt}\int\frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}. \quad\text{Hence}\quad \overline{d\odot} = \frac{a^2}{a^2 + t^2}\overline{d\overline{dt}} $$

This amounts to asserting that $d[uv] = dv\,du$ where $u=dt$ and $v=\int\frac{a^2}{a^2+t^2}$; and thus differentiating the product wrong, as the editors comment in footnote 14. On p. 668 they take this as grounds to date the manuscript early November 1675, since by November 11 he had the correct rule (in "Methodi tangentium inversae exempla", quoted by Edwards in KConrad's comment above).