Timeline for Did Leibniz really get the Leibniz rule wrong?
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11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jul 29, 2017 at 19:21 | history | edited | Francois Ziegler |
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| Apr 13, 2017 at 12:50 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
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| Dec 4, 2014 at 17:35 | comment | added | Mikhail Katz | In one of his more outrageous moments, Arnold did comment that Leibniz got the product rule wrong, as a way of "proving" Newton's alleged superiority over Leibniz. I always thought this kind of thing is due to Arnold's inability to absorb the hyperreals and consequent insecurity. | |
| Sep 22, 2014 at 13:09 | comment | added | Yemon Choi | @KConrad It's a work of something, that much I agree... | |
| Sep 21, 2014 at 15:52 | vote | accept | CommunityBot | moved from User.Id=21349 by developer User.Id=322028 | |
| Sep 21, 2014 at 4:38 | answer | added | Francois Ziegler | timeline score: 50 | |
| Sep 21, 2014 at 4:26 | comment | added | Bombyx mori | @KConrad: I see. I did not know! | |
| Sep 21, 2014 at 4:10 | comment | added | KConrad | @Bombyxmori: Stewart's text is not a work of scholarship, so I would not expect him to studiously document his historical remarks. | |
| Sep 21, 2014 at 4:06 | comment | added | KConrad | It is completely natural to wonder if the derivative of a product is given by that (false) rule. Nobody is saying Leibniz thought it might be true for any extended amount of time. According to p. 254 of "The Historical Development of the Calculus" by C. H. Edwards, Leibniz wrote about his search for a product rule on November 11, 1675. He asked himself if $(uv)' = u'v'$ and quickly dismissed it by the example you gave: $u = v = x$. He did not know a correct product rule at the time. By July 11, 1677 he had the product and quotient rules (see p. 255 of the book by Edwards). | |
| Sep 21, 2014 at 3:04 | comment | added | Bombyx mori | I checked Stewart and it says "By analogy with the Sum and Difference Rules, one might be tempted to guess, as Leibniz did three centuries ago, that the derivative of a product is the product of the derivatives." with no citation whatsoever. I suppose this might be a mild joke. | |
| Sep 21, 2014 at 2:39 | history | asked | user21349 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |