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Oct 2, 2014 at 5:52 vote accept Mark Roelands
Sep 20, 2014 at 15:02 comment added Mike Jury @YemonChoi - Yes, that's a nice simplification and I think it still works; continuity at infinity would still force the $x_i(\infty)$ to be scalar multiples of $I_2$ which would prevent convergence. Also, I'm not sure why I wanted $q=1-p$ orginally; it seems like $q=p$ works fine.
Sep 20, 2014 at 14:53 comment added Yemon Choi OK, I misunderstood earlier. This looks like it works - nice! Do you think we could run the same argument on $A=M_2 \otimes C({\bf N}\cup\{\infty\})$, sticking your all-entries-the-same projection at the point at infinity?
Sep 20, 2014 at 3:03 comment added Mike Jury I'm not claiming that every element of the bidual looks like this, only that IF I have a bounded Borel function, I get an element of $C[0,1]^{**}$ out of it via $\langle f,\mu\rangle =\int f\, d\mu$. (And I guess I also need that for this part of the bidual, weak-$*$ convergence controls pointwise convergence, which is supposed to follow by testing against point masses.)
Sep 20, 2014 at 2:54 comment added Mike Jury Not $L^\infty$, Borel; I am thinking $A^*$ is given by $M_2$-valued Radon measures $\mu$, and an $M_2$-valued Borel function $f$ acts on these by $\langle f, \mu \rangle= tr(\int f\, d\mu)$. (Am I all wet? This is why the bidual makes me nervous.)
Sep 20, 2014 at 2:50 comment added Yemon Choi I agree you can map $A^{**}$ to $L^\infty([0,1], M_2)$ but I don't see how you are going back the other way
Sep 20, 2014 at 2:40 history answered Mike Jury CC BY-SA 3.0