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Sep 22, 2014 at 17:29 vote accept James Dilts
Sep 22, 2014 at 17:29 vote accept James Dilts
Sep 22, 2014 at 17:29
Sep 22, 2014 at 12:34 history edited Jean Van Schaftingen CC BY-SA 3.0
Counterexample and reference
Sep 19, 2014 at 16:59 comment added James Dilts Oh, and do you happen to know a standard reference for the classical Hardy inequality in that generality?
Sep 19, 2014 at 16:43 comment added James Dilts Thanks! For $p>n$, in the situation where I want to apply this, I think I could probably get the first derivatives to be zero, since they exist and are continuous. However, what about $p=n$? What happens there?
Sep 19, 2014 at 6:54 history edited Jean Van Schaftingen CC BY-SA 3.0
Fixed formatting of the last paragraph
Sep 18, 2014 at 13:05 history answered Jean Van Schaftingen CC BY-SA 3.0