Timeline for The Klee Trick for subsets of $\mathbb{R}^3$
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
5 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Jan 17, 2019 at 16:03 | history | edited | Neil Hoffman | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
The related question was answered, so I updated the introduction here to stress that it is still open and relevant.
|
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
|
|
Sep 23, 2014 at 1:24 | comment | added | Neil Hoffman | @MathieuBaillif Yes. $Klee_1([0,1])=1$. | |
Sep 19, 2014 at 7:19 | comment | added | Mathieu Baillif | Just to be sure, is it true that $Klee_1([0,1]) =1$? | |
Sep 18, 2014 at 2:14 | history | asked | Neil Hoffman | CC BY-SA 3.0 |